Bitumen Surface=DPM

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Morning all, I have a question similar to some on here but not quite the same...

We have a late 1950s bungalow which we're working on room by room. The lounge had vinyl floor tiles which were removed over a smooth bitumen layer which now remains. I've read a number of conflicting things about this - is it actually the DPM? If so, can we leave it, underlay and carpet over the top?

If not, is it a case of using DPM underlay with wooden flooring over?

I'd appreciate any pointers. Thanks very much in advance.
 
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oddnumber, Hi.

In 99.9% of cases in property of this age the "Mastic Asphalt" top on your floor will indeed be the DPM

Suggest a look on Google, there is a site as I recall called something like the Mastic Asphalt Council [or some such] where there is a load of advice and information from what I believe to be a reliable source.

One area I would attempt to investigate is a De-Bonding layer between the underlay and the Asphalt?

Ken.
 
Awesome, thanks Ken. I've since spoken to a very helpful and knowledgeable chap at a local flooring company who has suggested screed, DPM, screed, then floorcovering.

All isn't lost! :)
 

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