Which is how language changes. Google was a noun and became a verb.
No, but they are forgivable errors in most contexts, especially a diy forum.
I'm saying nobody says "Could I of a pint have beer?"
I don't object to language changing, or words becoming generic, or nouns becoming verbs, in situations like that.
I do object to people randomly deciding that an existing word, with a defined and universally accepted meaning, can suddenly, and validly, be given a different meaning which was already defined and universally accepted for another word. For example the decision that "of" now means the same as "have".
And "forgivable" does not mean the same as "uncorrectable".
As for "could I of a pint have beer", maybe nobody does say it, but you want to legitimise the use of "of" in place of "have". You want to class that as a valid change to the language, for English to evolve such that "of" and "have" come to have the same meaning, so why not the situation where "of" comes to mean the same as "have",
and "have" comes to mean the same as "of"?
Bear in mind that in speech "pint of" is often contracted. It's not, AFAIK a valid contraction, there's no accepted way to write it, but people do say something which sounds like "pint've". In fact the more I think about it, the more I think its the way most people do say it in practice.
"I looked in the fridge earlier and we've only got one pint've milk left" is, IMO, more likely than a carefully articulated "I looked in the fridge earlier and we have only got one pint of milk left".
So as "could of" is as incorrect and meaningless as "pint have", it is not consistent to say that it's OK to use "could of" because the contraction of "could have" sounds like it could be a contraction of "could of", but it's not OK to use "pint have" because the contraction of "pint of" sounds like it could be a contraction of "pint have".
Maybe the observation should be that nobody
yet says "Could I of a pint have beer?"