It depends what you mean by an inconsistency.Is there not an inconsistency there? If (as I agree appears to be allowed by the regs) the water pipe can be used as the main bonding conductor for the gas supply (but not vice versa), why can't it also be used as the main bonding conductor for itself?
Obviously the water pipe alone cannot be its own bond because it is not connected to the MET.
As you know, the regulation calls for the bond to be at the point of entry where practicable (not where practical).
Aso, as you know and have stated before, the resistance of the pipe is far lower than the bonding conductor thus connection of the pipe, to the MET, could be done anywhere with the same result if confirmed.
I presume the at the point of entry requirement is because that is where the potential may be introduced and, if done elsewhere it may be disconnected by alteration or effectiveness reduced by resistive joints within the premises.