I don’t understand homosexual men who have children from a previous hetereosexual relationship. They must have gone into the heterosexual relationship thinking they might be homosexual, but how can they ‘perform’ with something they aren’t attracted to?
The only reason I can think of is because people say sexuality is not 100% either way, so is it because they are not 100% homosexual, and they managed to suppress the homosexual part for that moment?
Maybe I find this hard to understand because I consider myself 100% hetereosexual and, despite offers, have never had a homosexual experience because I haven’t wanted to or even could do, unlike it seems the majority of my friends when they were younger.
What do you think?
The only reason I can think of is because people say sexuality is not 100% either way, so is it because they are not 100% homosexual, and they managed to suppress the homosexual part for that moment?
Maybe I find this hard to understand because I consider myself 100% hetereosexual and, despite offers, have never had a homosexual experience because I haven’t wanted to or even could do, unlike it seems the majority of my friends when they were younger.
What do you think?