It is not the intent of the law.On the assumption that you disagree, what parts of the law do you feel says otherwise?
It is clearly not the intent of the law.
Everybody recognises that it is clearly not the intent of the law.
And if you think that what courts do is to bend over backwards to scrupulously follow only "the letter of the law", and do not interpret what is written with a bias towards what was clearly intended then you are a fool, and should you ever be in court expecting to rely on it taking a blinkered approach to "the letter of the law" you risk being grievously disappointed.