E
expertgasman
Sorry, people are going to think I'm trolling, but I'm genuinely not. Here's a scenario;
Non-VAT wants to earn £100k a year. To do this he's going to need to spend £200k on materials and overheads. He therefore needs to charge his customers £300k.
VAT will also have to spend £200k on materials and overheads but can claim VAT on these outgoings, meaning he has incurred a cost of £160k.
If he also charges his customers £300k he will earn £140k in the year. He'll have to pay VAT on this but will still end up with £112k.
So where does this example fall down? I'm guessing it's because I'm doing the calculation backwards, and taking off the materials first, then allowing for the VAT on the remainder.
It falls down because the VAT payable will be on £300,000, which is £50K