You yourself appeared to agree with DaveHerns when he made the point, albeit phrased differently, that £20 and 20p cable would be perform the same. However, when presented with the graphs that show cable do indeed alter the sound of a speaker you're now backtracking. You're saying you think that cables will produce different resulting graphs when measured. Is that it? How can it be both? You then make another oddly contradictory statement about "subjective measurements". How can measuring something be subjective? You go on to say that speakers differ in sound, and yes, I would agree. A frequency plot would show exactly that. So how come a frequency plot showing the difference between two speakers is valid, yet ones showing the effects of cables somehow aren't? How does that work?