I.ve been thinking about this overnight, and wonder whether some of the confusion has resulted from the fact that there are two different issues, which may have been a bit muddled up - and this may also partially explain the seemingly confusing/misleading/incorrect statement I made at the start. I just hope I've got my thinking a bit straighter in what I write below, but I'm sure you will all point out if I haven't
Using the terminology of our variously diagrams, what we are interested in is the 'touch voltage' (until fault is cleared), namely "A-B", so tjhat, in turn depends upon the potentials (relative to anything, say the MET) at points A and B (expose-c-p and point of contact {tap} respectively).
As far as the potential (say, relative to MET) at point B (point of contact with tap), that is going to be virtually the same as the potential at the point of (SB) bonding of the pipe ('point C'). In turn, the potential at that bonding point is, I would suggest, usually going to be 'not much above MET potential', since, although the pipe will be carrying a portion of the (possibly very high in total) fault current, the CSA of the pipe will be large (much larger than that of the CPCs or SB conductors). Hence I would suggest that, in practice, the potential at C, hence also at B, will usually be 'not much above MET potential', and that that largely remains true regardless of where point C is on the pipe - it is in that sense that I was probably thinking when I wrote that the location of the point of (SB) bonding 'did not matter'.
Moving to the potential at point A (the exposed-c-p) that is not appreciably affected by the location of point C (SB bonding to pipe), per se, being primarily dependent upon the resistance (hence length for a given CSA) of the SB conductor (again assuming that changes in VD along the {large CSA) will not be very significant). It is for this reason that the touch voltage (A-B) will usually be at its lowest when points A and C are as close as possible (hence SB conductor as short as possible) - i.e. when the exposed-c-pis bonded to the nearest possible point on the pipe (regardless of where the 'tap' is).
At first sight, SB would seem to be very simple, logical and 'obvious' ("join all touchable things together so that there can't be appreciable PDs between them") - and that is essentially correct. However, given that the reason for doing this is to reduce/minimise touch voltages, and in view of some of the things you go on to say, I would point out that one can achieve 'similar' simply by reducing the resistance of the circuit's CPC (e.g. by adding a further one in parallel with the existing one) ....
As we know, with 2.5/1.5 mm² T+E, if the point of contact with the 'pipe' (point B) is at MET potential, then, with a supply of 230V, the touch voltage will be about 144 V. If, instead of installing 4 mm² SB, one added a 4 mm² 'CPC' in parallel with the existing one (so that one effectively had a 2.5/5.5 mm² cable), that touch voltage would reduce to about 72V. If one added a 6 mm² CPC in parallel with the existing one, then that touch voltage would reduce to about 57.5 V.
Of course, one consequence of reducing touch voltage (by any method) will be that the magnitude of fault current will increase, perhaps substantially.
That is true. I would not regard it as a concept but the nearer to the MET the SB connection is, the less the conductor is an SB until it becomes only another CPC.
Indeed, but that;'s not really any more than a matter of words. The SB conductor will achieve what it is designed to achieved, even if essentially the same would be achieved if you did something that you called "adding a parallel CPC". As I said,conductors do not know what they are called, or why they were installed - they just obey the Laws of Physics.
It is theoretically possible that exposed-c-p, potential point of contact and MET might be physically all very close one another, but if, for whatever reason, you installed SB in that situation, you wouldn't say that it "wasn't SB" (because it was 'virtually a parallel CPC') would you?
Let's face it, I don't think one can get away from the fact that if you connect a conductor from an exposed-c-p to (anywhere on) a pipe which provides a (I would suggest) very low resistance path to the MET, you
will have, in effect, "added a CPC" in parallel with the existing one, even if you choose to call it something else, won't you?
Surely it must, or as above it is just another CPC (or unnecessary conductor).
As above, it is fulfilling the desired electrical role of a SB conductor, even if it could be viewed as a 'parallel CPC'. Again as above, it doesn't know whether you have chosen to call it SB or CPC or why you installed it.
I do not disagree but when moving farther away from the tap - or more importantly, nearer the MET, there must come a point when the conductor is no longer an effective SB.
What do you mean by "no longer an effective SB". As above, it will ensure that the potential of B ('point of contact') is virtually same as that of point C (point of bonding), which I'm suggesting will usually be 'not much above MET potential" - which is all one can ask of any SB conductor, isn't it.?