The Fantastic Mr Fox

Ok.

Then - How small a proportion of African ancestry is required before treatment ceases to be able to be called racist?
 
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OK if it wasn't racism, but if that was the case, then the press and others should say exactly why they hate her so much - you can't publish so much hate without a good reason.

Kate can't put a foot wrong, Meghan has been blamed for causing all manner of problems in the monarchy. Both appeared on the scene at a similar time, both to princes of the same Prince and Princess.

Why are they treated so differently?

here's a selection of comparisons

https://www.boredpanda.com/uk-media...oogle&utm_medium=organic&utm_campaign=organic
 
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you have to read them all. It is astonishing really.
 
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OK if it wasn't racism, but if that was the case, then the press and others should say exactly why they hate her so much - you can't publish so much hate with(out?) a good reason.
Kate can't put a foot wrong, Meghan has been blamed for causing all manner of problems in the monarchy. Both appeared on the scene at a similar time, both to princes of the same Prince and Princess.
Why are they treated so differently?
How would I know?
 
Care to try to guess what makes them different?
 
One is not British?

Is that what they are probably wrongly describing as racist because she has African ancestry?

That is, it might be the same criticism if she was blonde and had Swedish ancestry.
 
No it does not, I am saying a claimant could have made either of these claims:

"Meghan did not leave because of racism"

"Meghan did leave because of racism"

All you are doing is saying the burden of proof is on the person that spoke first.

You for instance may have thought all along that racism was not the reason, if you had spoken out first then the burden would be on you to prove.

........which, necessarily, is the one who claimed "racism"; no-one would support or refute a claim of racism, without that claim having been made in the first place.
 
Oh yes.

Divorced (and Catholic) used to be against the rules until Charles wanted them changed.

What a bunch of nonsense this Monarchy lark is.



In a similar vein, aren't two Popes arguing about rule changes to nonsense that used to be sacrosanct?
 
Perhaps the press (and to some extent the public) had the same attitude towards Wallace Simpson, another yank divorcee.

So the DM doesn't like yanks or divorcees?

As to the former - a quick glance at their paper would suggest that isn't the case. As to the latter - where have they been critical of divorcees as a consistent part of their reporting.
 
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