Doesn't it just demonstrate that no one group of people seems to have a monopoly on virtue or crime?
Perhaps I have misinterpreted it, but let's see if I have it right.
Whereas Christians comprise 61.3% of the population, they comprise only 50.2% of the prison population. That's proportionally a good deal less than the general Christian population.
Whilst Muslims comprise 4.0% of the population, they comprise 13.1% of the prison population. That's proportionally over three times the general Muslim population.
So, per capita, Muslims are more likely to be criminals.
That seems perfectly clear to me, but I stand to be corrected.
Okay- first of all I used the word 'monopoly' which generally means having sole or exclusive rights or control over something. So clearly neither Christian nor Muslim have this.
Then - yes, Muslims are disproportionately represented in those figures.
But then we are back to the old problem of drawing conclusions from this .
Majority of burglars are white. Doesn't mean that an individual white person is more likely to be a burglar.
Majority of muggers are black. Doesn't mean that an individual black person is more likely to be a mugger.
Majority of mass murderers and child rapist/ killers are white . Doesn't mean that ...etc etc etc
Majority of criminals are from low income families....doesn't mean etcetc
Be careful with statistics . Or if you can't, at least be consistent.
There are other factors involved such as socio-economic groups etc
For a real statistical analysis, you need all factors to be taken into account.
