I don't have to postulate an alternative. I'm asking the lockdown zealots to justify what they have been advocating whilst taking into account the adverse effects of said lockdown.
No you're not - your asking us whether 'what they have been advocating is "proportionate" or "disproportionate" but, as I said, that is so subjective and undefinable as to be unhelpful. All one can really do is speculate how the overall effects may have differed between different strategies.
I don't think anyone can deny that lockdown will have a grave, long-lasting effect, but who can tell to what extent?
Quite. And I don't think that anyone can deny that 'doing nothing' would also have 'grave effects' - hence the need to discuss comparisons.
If you insist on an alternative then I would propose the pandemic plan which I have already linked to, but which you have dismissed as unworkable. I would remind you that this is close to the approach followed by Sweden ...
As I've said, I don't think anyone really understands what has been happening in Sweden, which seems totally out on a limb in some senses. That's why I always ask those who cite it to suggest one or two other countries with similar experiences, but I never seem to get any answers.
Anyway, in terms of Sweden, give or take the caution that always have to be exercised in interpreting apparent differences/similarities between 'the numbers' from different countries, in terms of Covid itself, Sweden's experience has been much the same as the UK's (for both reported 'cases' and 'deaths', per capita of population, certainly for the first year of the pandemic (see graphs below). The difference is that Sweden seems to have achieved much the same as us (Covid-wise) with appreciably less economic and social etc. disruption - and that (pretty unique to Sweden) is what is poorly understood.
INow who's speculating? You've pulled the lower number from the worst case scenario of an already discredited model. God knows where you have pulled 1,000,000 from.
It's nothing to do with any models, discredited or otherwise, it's just simple ('ballpark') arithmetic. The virus we initially experienced had an R0 of about 3.0, which translates to an HIT of about 67% (of 'totally immune' people). In the absence of any NPIs, the virus will have spread rapidly until at least 67% (undoubtedly more, since immunity in 'the immune' will not have been 'total') had been infected - let's say at least about 45 million. Mortality (CFR) in those early days was estimated as 1-2% (obviously difficult at the time, given the lack of knowledge of 'the denominator') - so maybe 450,000 - 900,000 deaths. However, with that number of cases in a relatively short period of time (probably only a few months), the NHS would, back then (and probably still today), only have been able to treat a small fraction, so mortality would undoubtedly been a fair bit higher than that.
More speculation that you can't quantify.
I see no speculation, and cannot see any scope for speculation except by really extreme 'deniers'. Could any sensible person possibly deny that implementing measures to reduce inter-personal contact/proximity will reduce the number of infections? Once one has accepted that, everything else follows, with no need for any speculation - decreased infections leads to decreased hospitalisation because of Covid and hence reduced diversion of healthcare resources away from non-Covid activities. What is 'speculative' about any of that?
Kind Regards, John