I suppose it can be argued that once a word has been assimilated into a language, then its etymological origins become irrelevant, and that it does not necessarily have to remain true to meanings of its component parts in the language from which it is derived. In other words, if people are simply taught what, say, the English word 'homophobic' is defined as meaning, those without any knowledge of Greek (or Greek-derived words) would not know any different. However, given that many people do have at least some knowledge/understanding of Greek-derived (and Latin-derived) English words, that is an approach which is bound to produce some confusion.