I see that's a hard concept for you to grasp.
On the contrary.
It's you that is struggling. But at least you've been consistent with it.
I'll try to make this easy for you to follow.
The police know that savile was a pervert who carried out abuse at various locations.
They don't know how many victims there were, and probably never will.
They don't know if others were involved and are trying to find out.
Now, how does stating saviles obvious guilt at the beginning of their inquiry compromise it in any way that would be predjudicial to any other people who may be found to be involved?
If you can answer that you'd better get on to the met and tell them they've fcked up.