Vive La France!

Unlike unborn children
no such thing

a pregnant women has a foetus, which under 24 week is not conscious

it is not a child

90% of abortion cases are under 10 weeks. the vast majority of those are the result of young women and men having unprotected sex or contraception failing and the woman doesnt realise until she is late for her next period

it is utterly pathetic that men like Vinty start screaming their phoney outrage that having an abortion in that situation is "killing a child"

utterly pathetic


FFS just let women who find themselves in such a situation to have an abortion, then let them have a child later in life when they are in a stable relationship and are financially secure


I notice Vinty never mentions a wife or children.....so a person totally unqualified to make a judgement
 
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You can only have a termination in the UK if there is a risk to the mental or physical wellbeing of you, the foetus or your family.
That's not what the law says.
 
I think it's pretty clear that if a woman in the UK wants an abortion, she'll get it. As MBK pointed out, the bar is pretty low
whilst true, the act of requiring 2 doctors to sign a form approving the termination and has to be lodged with the chief medical officer, means abortion is not treated casually by the law

required standard operating procedures state abortion service providers should provide emotional support and counselling or refer women for support if they request this.

For women who require formal therapeutic counselling, services should have referral pathways in place with access to trained counsellors with appropriate expertise. Women who are unsure about whether to continue with the pregnancy or have an abortion should be offered counselling or decision-making support.
 
The requirement for two doctors to sign a statement of opinion has nothing to do with the lawfulness of the abortion.
She has not broken the law by having an abortion and then finding out the doctors failed to complete their paperwork.
Different argument to what I said. You are inferring negligence on the doctors behalf or their lack of form filling.
 
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One of the stupidest, cruellest things you could impose upon the females of this world, is to restrict their access to abortion. The moron right wing c**ts in the USA are actively trying to limit access to Mifepristone, as we speak. Scoundrels.

Vive La France!
 
One of the stupidest, cruellest things you could impose upon the females of this world, is to restrict their access to abortion. The moron right wing c**ts in the USA are actively trying to limit access to Mifepristone, as we speak. Scoundrels.

Vive La France!
they are trying to ban contraception access as well

in fact they are already

this is why people with views like Vinty are so dangerous...because they are ripe for brainwashing by controlling populist politicians



 
they are trying to ban contraception access as well

in fact they are already

this is why people with views like Vinty are so dangerous...because they are ripe for brainwashing by controlling populist politicians
Fukking backwards, cruel and dangerous gammon bastards.
 
The bar is much lower.
If she is within the time limit
she simply declares she does not want it.

It is sufficient all things being equal.

How does a woman simply declaring that she doesn't want to have the baby fit into one of the exceptions? This isn't a trap! I'm just interested. I think someone might have mentioned earlier that the fact giving birth has a higher risk than abortion was enough to fit the exception? Or is it simply that forcing someone to have a baby when they don't want to will always be counted as damaging to their mental health? Or perhaps both of these?
 
An historical legal question! Before the 1967 Act, if a woman had an illegal abortion, is it just the person who carried out the abortion who committed a crime, or could the woman herself also be prosecuted for e.g. "inciting" the abortion? I'm finding it surprisingly difficult to Google an answer.
 
An historical legal question! Before the 1967 Act, if a woman had an illegal abortion, is it just the person who carried out the abortion who committed a crime, or could the woman herself also be prosecuted for e.g. "inciting" the abortion? I'm finding it surprisingly difficult to Google an answer.
Vera Drake has the answer.
 
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