Thank you guy so much for you help and patience on this ... So just to put some numbers in
0.56
----------- = 0.62 0.62 x 230 = 143v
0.34+ 0.56
So a voltage of 143 volts will appear on the faulty metal part.(If measured between the neutral in the CU and the faulty metal work)
Yep - well 143V between the faulty metal work and the
MET. With TN installations that will be much the same as between the metalwork and neutral, but with TT, under these fault conditions, the MET will be at a much higher potential than the neutral (so the metalwork-neutral pd would be appreciably less).
And since all that metal work is effectively connected together. 143v will also appear on the exposed and extraneous CPs. Give or take a bit for the resistance of the ECPs
I'm not sure what you mean by 'all that metalwork', but I suspect the answer is 'No'! Any exposed- or extraneous-c-ps connected (via different CPCs, or by bonding conductors) to the MET will still be at approximately MET potential, whereas the faulty exposed-c-p (and anything connected to that metalwork via
that circuit's CPC) will be about 143V above the MET potential.
So between the fault and a conductive part they will be 0 (ish) volts potential
See above - what you say is ONLY true of other exposed-c-ps on the same circuit (i.e. same CPC back to MET). The potential between the faulty part and any other MET-connected part (not on the same circuit) will be 143V, not 0V-ish.
I understand the principle of protective bonding - keeping everything at an equal voltage, be that all at 0v or all at 100v ... If they are the same, current can't flow, as no potential difference.
Yep, if they are at the same potential (measured relative to anywhere), then no current can flow between them.
So the resistance between the fault (an exposed CP) and and Extraneous CP has fo fulfil R< 50v/Ia ... So if it was a 6 amp circuit 50/30 = 1.66Ω. So as long as The resistance measured between the two parts is < 1.66 Ω. So if testing, this would confirm that the Protective bonding in place is acceptable, and supplementary bonding is not required.
That's more-or-less what the regs say, but it gets complicated and I need to think about how best to try to explain the situation. One problem is that if, say, the Zs at the circuit is already at the maximum for ADS, then
any additional resistance in the fault path will prevent the device tripping magnetically.
I think i was confused about limiting the voltage. We are not limiting the voltage, we are limiting the potential difference.
Maybe. 'Voltage', per se, is a meaningless concept, since it has to be voltage 'relative to something' (i.e. a potential difference between the two things).
Kind Regards, John